calculation of diluted eps.
for 8 qn in slide no 30 of fsa II answer is specified in slide no 32.
there in the calculation of denominator its mentioned as (100-(100*50/75)).
100 is warrants 75 is avg price but how did we get 50 while 100 was the strike price?
and warrants are antidilutive in this question. so why are they used in calcualtion of denominator when they are not involved in numerator?